Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium levels. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be closely monitored to prevent adverse effects. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. While magnesium and calcium are important electrolytes, potassium levels are more critical for Digoxin toxicity assessment.

2. What is the classification of furosemide?

• A. Loop diuretic
• B. Anticoagulant
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Anticonvulsant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).

3. When educating a client prescribed Rifampin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Expect orange discoloration of urine.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Rifampin is to expect orange discoloration of urine. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, which is a common side effect of this medication. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected side effect to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Rifampin does not require specific dietary considerations like taking it with food or increasing dairy intake. Furthermore, itching is not a common side effect that would necessitate immediate discontinuation of Rifampin.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 6.5 mL
• B. 7 mL
• C. 5 mL
• D. 8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

• A. Within 30 minutes/unit
• B. Within 60 minutes/unit
• C. Within 2 hours/unit
• D. Within 4 hours/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

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