ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.
2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about managing Digoxin toxicity. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take an extra dose of Digoxin if I miss one.
- B. I should notify my healthcare provider if I experience visual changes.
- C. I will stop taking Digoxin if my heart rate is below 70 bpm.
- D. I should take antacids to alleviate gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual changes, such as yellow or blurred vision, can be indicative of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for clients to inform their healthcare provider promptly if they encounter these symptoms. Prompt medical attention can help manage potential toxicity and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking an extra dose of Digoxin, stopping Digoxin based on heart rate alone, and using antacids for gastrointestinal upset are not appropriate actions when managing Digoxin toxicity.
3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Pamidronate to a client who has bone pain related to cancer. Which of the following precautions should the healthcare professional take when administering pamidronate?
- A. Inspect the IV site for redness and irritation when changing the intravenous patch.
- B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
- C. Instruct the client to sit upright or stand for 30 min following intravenous administration.
- D. Watch for manifestations of anaphylaxis for 20 min after intramuscular administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pamidronate is administered through intravenous (IV) infusion. As this medication can be irritating to veins, the healthcare professional should carefully assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during administration to prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered via intradermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the administration of Pamidronate. Choice D is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered intramuscularly.
5. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?
- A. Single
- B. Stat
- C. Routine
- D. Standing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen. The other choices are incorrect: 'Single' does not provide information about the frequency or duration of administration, 'Stat' indicates an urgent, one-time administration, and 'Standing' refers to a prescription that is automatically renewed without the need for a new order for each administration.
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