Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Acetaminophen
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.

2. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

• A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
• B. Opioid, such as morphine
• C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
• D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

3. A client has a new prescription for Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should be identified as an adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Bruising
• C. Dizziness
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bruising is an adverse effect to be monitored when a client is prescribed Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction due to its association with increased bleeding risk. Aspirin's antiplatelet effect can lead to bruising and other signs of bleeding, necessitating close observation to prevent complications. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically recognized adverse effects of Aspirin therapy for myocardial infarction prevention.

4. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
• C. Avoid consuming foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase your fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Monitoring the heart rate regularly is crucial to promptly detect any significant decreases. This allows for timely intervention and adjustment of the medication regimen if needed, helping to prevent adverse effects associated with bradycardia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning does not address the need for heart rate monitoring. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. Increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the use of Atenolol.

5. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

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