ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Atorvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase the blood levels of Atorvastatin by inhibiting its metabolism in the body, leading to a higher risk of adverse effects, such as muscle pain and liver damage. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking Atorvastatin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atorvastatin can be taken with or without food, at any time of the day, and there is no specific need to increase potassium-rich foods while on this medication.
2. Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)?
- A. Increased pulse
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Mydriasis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, commonly causes side effects like increased pulse, mydriasis (dilated pupils), and constipation due to its inhibitory effect on the parasympathetic nervous system. Diarrhea is not typically a side effect of Atropine, making it the correct answer.
3. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid activities that may cause injury.
- C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
- D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.
4. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Absolute neutrophil count
- C. Platelet count
- D. Total white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Pain level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.
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