Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect decreased urination within the first few days.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. Therefore, instructing the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent electrolyte imbalances and support overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning is not directly related to the medication's mechanism of action. Expecting decreased urination within the first few days is not accurate as the medication is a diuretic that typically increases urination. Also, advising the client to avoid foods high in potassium would not be suitable, as increasing potassium-rich foods is necessary to counteract potential potassium depletion caused by Hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ringing in the ears
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.

4. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.
• B. Limit your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Avoid drinking milk.
• D. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of bananas and oranges.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. To prevent this, clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges, to replenish potassium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting calcium-rich foods or avoiding milk is not necessary with Furosemide, and increasing intake of green, leafy vegetables does not specifically address the potential potassium loss associated with this medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

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