a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for bethanechol to treat urinary retention the nurse should recognize that which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This ensures proper absorption of the medication. It is important to rotate the application site daily to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to decreased efficacy and potential skin reactions. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patches are usually worn continuously to provide constant medication delivery. Covering the patch with a heating pad can increase the absorption of the medication and lead to an overdose, which is not recommended.

3. What is the appropriate medication to administer for a suspected opioid overdose in a patient who comes to the hospital?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is the drug of choice for managing opioid overdoses as it competitively antagonizes opioid receptors, reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by opioids. It is crucial in the emergency treatment of opioid overdose to prevent fatal outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exenatide is a medication used to treat diabetes, heparin is an anticoagulant, and tolvaptan is a diuretic. None of these medications are indicated for the management of opioid overdose.

4. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify trough levels of a medication, the healthcare professional should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication. This timing ensures an accurate representation of the medication's lowest concentration in the bloodstream, which is crucial for therapeutic monitoring and dose adjustments. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 24 hours after taking the medication would not provide an accurate trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level, as it is the lowest concentration before the next dose.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, so Vitamin K intake should be consistent but not excessive. Calcium carbonate and ranitidine do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with Warfarin.

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