a nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens the nurse should inform the client this medica
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The healthcare provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in individuals with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation in the veins, and estrogen therapy can exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Therefore, caution is advised when considering estrogen therapy in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and dysfunctional uterine bleeding may actually be conditions for which estrogen therapy is indicated. Osteoporosis can also be managed with estrogen therapy in certain cases to help prevent bone density loss.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being taught strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chewing sugarless gum is an effective strategy to manage dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. By stimulating saliva production, sugarless gum helps to moisten the mouth and alleviate the discomfort associated with dryness. This intervention can improve the client's oral health and overall comfort while taking the medication. The other options are not directly related to alleviating anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia does not address anticholinergic effects specifically. Using cooling measures to decrease fever is not relevant to managing dry mouth caused by anticholinergic effects. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea is unrelated to managing dry mouth, which is the focus of anticholinergic effects.

3. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

4. A client has a new prescription for Sulfasalazine for the treatment of Crohn's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Expect orange-yellow discoloration of urine and skin.' Sulfasalazine can cause this harmless side effect, which does not require discontinuation of the medication. Option B is incorrect because Sulfasalazine is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Option C is incorrect as a sore throat is not a common reason to stop the medication. Option D is not directly related to the side effects of Sulfasalazine.

5. When teaching a client about preventing Otitis Externa, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, the nurse should instruct the client to tip the head to the side to allow water to drain out after showering or swimming. This helps to prevent moisture buildup in the ear canal, reducing the risk of developing Otitis Externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear.

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