ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. What is the action of Metformin?
- A. Decreasing intestinal glucose absorption
- B. Increasing sensitivity to insulin
- C. Decreasing hepatic glucose production
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metformin exerts its effects by decreasing hepatic glucose production, increasing sensitivity to insulin, and decreasing intestinal glucose absorption. These actions help in lowering blood glucose levels and improving insulin sensitivity in individuals with diabetes.
2. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with orange juice.
- C. Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.
- D. Expect a persistent cough while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report bone pain to your healthcare provider.' Filgrastim is known to cause bone pain as a common side effect. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to report any bone pain to their healthcare provider to monitor for potential complications or the need for further management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Filgrastim with food, avoiding it with orange juice, and expecting a persistent cough are not relevant instructions associated with this medication.
3. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.
4. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?
- A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
- C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
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