ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for erythromycin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with a full glass of water.
- B. I should avoid direct sunlight while taking this medication.
- C. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. I should take an antacid 30 minutes before taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythromycin should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to increase absorption. Taking it with a full glass of water (Choice A) is incorrect. Avoiding direct sunlight (Choice B) is not related to erythromycin use. Taking an antacid before the medication (Choice D) can interfere with its absorption.
2. A client with limited mobility in their lower extremities is at risk for skin breakdown. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?
- A. Place the client in high-Fowler's position.
- B. Increase the client's intake of carbohydrates.
- C. Massage areas of skin that are darker than the surrounding skin tissue with unscented lotion.
- D. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase the client's intake of carbohydrates. Adequate nutrition, including carbohydrates, is essential for tissue repair and preventing skin breakdown. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position (choice A) may help with respiratory function but does not directly prevent skin breakdown. Massaging areas of darker skin (choice C) can cause further damage to the skin. Using a trapeze bar (choice D) may assist with changing positions but does not directly address skin breakdown prevention.
3. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?
- A. Pregnancy status
- B. Bone density
- C. Calcium levels
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.
4. A child is admitted in acute renal failure (ARF). Therapeutic management to rapidly provoke a flow of urine includes the administration of what medication?
- A. Propranolol (Inderal)
- B. Calcium gluconate
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol) or furosemide (Lasix)
- D. Sodium, chloride, and potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Mannitol and furosemide are diuretics commonly used to induce diuresis in acute renal failure, helping to provoke urine flow and manage fluid overload. Calcium gluconate and electrolyte supplementation are used for other specific conditions and not primarily for diuresis.
5. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
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