a nurse is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of enoxaparin 40 mg04 ml to an adult client following hip ar
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.

2. A client prescribed Warfarin is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can reduce the medication's anticoagulant effect. Therefore, clients taking Warfarin should be advised to avoid or consume a consistent amount of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables, dairy products, or avoiding foods high in iron are not directly related to the interaction with Warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.

4. A client with HIV is beginning therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to suppress bone marrow function, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequently causing fatigue due to anemia. Monitoring for fatigue is essential to ensure early detection and management of this adverse effect.

5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.

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