a nurse is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of enoxaparin 40 mg04 ml to an adult client following hip ar
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.

2. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

3. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Injection-site reactions such as redness and swelling are common. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for potential adverse effects.

4. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Duloxetine. Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor commonly used to manage fibromyalgia. It helps in reducing pain and improving mood in individuals with this condition. Colchicine (Choice A) is primarily used to treat gout, while Hydroxychloroquine (Choice B) and Auranofin (Choice C) are medications used to manage conditions like rheumatoid arthritis and lupus, not fibromyalgia.

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