a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for captopril which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.

3. A client is being assessed by a healthcare provider while taking Digoxin to manage heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is anorexia, not bruising, metallic taste, or muscle pain. Other symptoms of digoxin toxicity include blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea. It is crucial for healthcare providers to promptly identify these signs to prevent severe complications.

4. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

5. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

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