Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.

2. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

3. A client is starting therapy with bicalutamide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is gynecomastia (Choice C). Bicalutamide is associated with gynecomastia due to its antiandrogenic properties. Gynecomastia, the development of breast tissue in males, is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking bicalutamide. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Pain level
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client receiving an IV bolus of Morphine is the respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is a serious adverse effect. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise early and intervene promptly. Assessing pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are also important but not the priority in this situation. Pain level can be assessed after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Blood pressure and level of consciousness should be monitored but do not take precedence over the respiratory rate when administering Morphine.

5. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

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