ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client with Schizophrenia is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of snacks to prevent weight loss.
- B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
- C. Be aware of the possibility of mild seizures while taking this medication.
- D. Expect an increase in libido when taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to the client taking Risperidone for Schizophrenia is to notify the provider if they develop breast enlargement. Risperidone can lead to an increase in prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report these manifestations to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing snack intake to prevent weight loss is not a specific concern related to Risperidone. Mild seizures are not a common side effect of Risperidone, so this instruction is unnecessary. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like decreased libido rather than an increase.
2. In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?
- A. Gastritis
- B. Peptic Ulcers
- C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- D. Thalamus hypertrophy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor mainly used to treat conditions related to the stomach, such as gastritis, peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition that Lansoprazole is indicated for; it is used for gastrointestinal issues and not neurological conditions.
3. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Flushing
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine to a client for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare provider's priority?
- A. Respiratory rate
- B. Pain level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority assessment for a healthcare provider preparing to administer an IV bolus of Morphine is the client's respiratory rate. Morphine can cause respiratory depression as a significant adverse effect, so monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Assessing the respiratory rate takes precedence over other assessments because respiratory depression can lead to serious complications. While pain level, blood pressure, and level of consciousness are important assessments, they are not the priority when administering Morphine, as the risk of respiratory depression is a more immediate concern.
5. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
- C. BUN 55 mg/dL
- D. Glucose 120 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
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