Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Lansoprazole?

• A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• B. Gastritis
• C. Hypertension
• D. Reflux

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat conditions related to excessive stomach acid production, such as Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, gastritis, and reflux. However, it is not indicated for the treatment of hypertension, which is managed using antihypertensive medications. Therefore, the correct answer is C: Hypertension.

2. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. The nurse should expect to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Bone marrow suppression
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone marrow suppression (Choice C). Methotrexate can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in adverse effects such as anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Monitoring for signs of decreased blood cell counts is essential to prevent complications and adjust treatment as needed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insomnia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with methotrexate use in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis.

3. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.

4. A client has a new prescription for colchicine to treat gout. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication with food if nausea develops.
• B. Monitor for muscle pain.
• C. Expect to have increased bruising.
• D. Increase your intake of grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for muscle pain is crucial when taking colchicine because it can lead to rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition characterized by muscle breakdown. This adverse effect needs prompt identification to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking colchicine with food, experiencing increased bruising, or increasing grapefruit juice intake are not relevant instructions for a client prescribed colchicine for gout.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?

• A. INR of 4.0
• B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. BUN of 18 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.

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