Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

• A. Insulin glargine
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Regular insulin
• D. Insulin lispro

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Regular insulin. Regular insulin, also known as short-acting insulin, typically exhibits a peak effect around 1 to 5 hours following administration. This rapid onset and peak effect make it suitable for managing postprandial glucose levels. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect, making it unsuitable for rapid glucose control within 1 to 5 hours. NPH insulin has an intermediate duration of action and a different peak time frame. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that peaks within 30 minutes to 2.5 hours after administration, not within the 1 to 5-hour range.

2. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.

3. A healthcare provider in a clinic is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, particularly in older clients taking Digoxin. Hypokalemia potentiates the effects of Digoxin, making the heart more sensitive to its toxic effects. Monitoring and correcting electrolyte imbalances, especially low potassium levels, are crucial to prevent adverse effects of digoxin therapy. Calcium levels do not directly influence digoxin toxicity, so choices A and B are incorrect. High potassium levels, as in choice D, are less likely to increase the risk of digoxin toxicity compared to low potassium levels.

4. In which of the following cases is Lansoprazole not used?

• A. Gastritis
• B. Peptic Ulcers
• C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
• D. Thalamus hypertrophy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor mainly used to treat conditions related to the stomach, such as gastritis, peptic ulcers, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Thalamus hypertrophy is not a condition that Lansoprazole is indicated for; it is used for gastrointestinal issues and not neurological conditions.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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