ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking Alendronate. This medication can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position for at least 30 minutes helps prevent complications such as esophagitis or esophageal ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice D is incorrect because while calcium intake is important, it is not a specific instruction related to taking Alendronate.
2. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?
- A. Nausea
- B. Flushed appearance
- C. Vertigo
- D. Sexual dysfunction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.
3. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucosamine
- B. Saw palmetto
- C. Kava
- D. St. John's wort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic use or high doses of kava have been associated with liver damage, including severe liver failure. Therefore, the nurse should report the client's use of kava to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Ranolazine
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.
5. While caring for a client receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia, which finding should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Leukocytosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Fever
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy. Fever is also not a common adverse effect of this medication.
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