Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

• A. Insulin glargine
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Regular insulin
• D. Insulin lispro

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client about the adverse effects of Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Lactic acidosis.
• B. Hypoglycemia.
• C. Hyperlipidemia.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but severe side effect of Metformin, particularly in individuals with renal or liver issues. It is crucial for clients taking Metformin to be aware of the symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, stomach discomfort, and feeling cold. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Metformin but can occur when combined with other antidiabetic medications. Choice C, hyperlipidemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Metformin. Choice D, weight gain, is not associated with Metformin use; in fact, Metformin is often associated with weight loss or weight neutrality.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

4. Which medication is contraindicated with Nitroglycerin?

• A. Hydrochloroquine
• B. Methylprednisolone
• C. Phenazopyridine
• D. Erectile dysfunction drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Erectile dysfunction drugs. Erectile dysfunction drugs are contraindicated with Nitroglycerin because they can potentiate the hypotensive effects of Nitroglycerin, leading to severe hypotension. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not known to have significant interactions with Nitroglycerin.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Narcan
• C. Romazicon
• D. Naloxone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

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