ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?
- A. Insulin glargine
- B. NPH insulin
- C. Regular insulin
- D. Insulin lispro
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?
- A. aPTT 75 seconds.
- B. INR 1.2.
- C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.
3. What observation by the nurse indicates the need for further teaching to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on assisting with ambulation?
- A. The UAP puts shoes on the client
- B. The UAP removes floor rugs and loose objects from the path
- C. The UAP walks to the side and slightly in front of the client
- D. The UAP uses a transfer (gait) belt
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because the UAP should walk slightly behind or to the side of the client, not in front, to provide proper support during ambulation. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of incorrect technique or the need for further teaching. Putting shoes on the client, removing floor rugs and loose objects, and using a transfer (gait) belt are all appropriate actions when assisting with ambulation.
4. How does the environment interact with genetic predispositions to influence mental health?
- A. The environment has no influence on mental health.
- B. The environment interacts with genetic predispositions to either enhance or mitigate mental health risks.
- C. The environment can only influence physical health, not mental health.
- D. The environment has a minimal effect on mental health outcomes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The environment interacts with genetic predispositions to either enhance or mitigate mental health risks. This highlights the intricate relationship between one's genetic makeup and the environmental factors they are exposed to, both contributing significantly to mental health outcomes. Choice A is incorrect as numerous studies show that the environment plays a crucial role in mental health. Choice C is incorrect as the environment can influence both physical and mental health. Choice D is incorrect as research indicates that the environment can have a substantial impact on mental health outcomes.
5. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Difficulty swallowing
- C. Heart rate of 122/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: Difficulty swallowing
Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.
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