Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

• A. Insulin glargine
• B. NPH insulin
• C. Regular insulin
• D. Insulin lispro

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.

2. A client is taking naproxen following an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client requires further discussion?

• A. I signed up for a swimming class.
• B. I've been taking an antacid to help with indigestion.
• C. I've lost 2 pounds since my appointment 2 weeks ago.
• D. The naproxen is easier to take when I crush it and put it in applesauce.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client stating that they have been taking an antacid to help with indigestion while on naproxen requires further discussion. This statement suggests potential gastrointestinal distress or interactions between the medications. Antacids can affect the absorption of naproxen or lead to other complications. Therefore, the nurse should address this statement with the client to ensure safe and effective medication management. Choices A, C, and D do not raise immediate concerns related to the client's medication regimen and can be considered positive health behaviors or side effects of treatment that do not require immediate intervention.

3. A client is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
• B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
• C. Decreases cravings.
• D. Results in mild hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreases cravings.' Propranolol is commonly used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce cravings for alcohol. It does not increase the risk for seizure activity, provide aversion therapy, or result in mild hypertension. By decreasing cravings, Propranolol can support the client in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and promoting abstinence. Therefore, it is important to educate the client on how Propranolol can help them cope with alcohol cravings effectively.

4. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.

5. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

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