Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

• A. Sore throat.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Heat intolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

2. Which adverse reaction poses the greatest life-threatening risk when taking Omeprazole?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
• D. Acute interstitial nephritis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most life-threatening adverse reaction associated with Omeprazole is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. This condition can be severe and life-threatening due to the potential for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and complications such as toxic megacolon. Chest pain, constipation, and acute interstitial nephritis are potential side effects of Omeprazole but are not considered as life-threatening as Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Monitoring for signs of this adverse reaction is crucial, and immediate medical attention should be sought if symptoms develop.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum chloride.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

5. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Levofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking Levofloxacin with dairy products. This is because calcium in dairy products can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Patients should be advised to take Levofloxacin either 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Levofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of Levofloxacin administration is not specified as at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods specifically for Levofloxacin administration.

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