Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.

2. A client with asthma has new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol by nebulizer. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If my breathing begins to feel tight, I will use the cromolyn immediately.
• B. I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn.
• C. I will use both medications immediately after exercising.
• D. I will administer the medications 10 minutes apart.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking albuterol before cromolyn ensures that the airways are open, allowing the cromolyn to reach the lungs effectively. Choice A is incorrect because cromolyn is a preventive medication and should be used regularly, not just when symptoms worsen. Choice C is incorrect because medications should be used as prescribed, not based on a specific event like exercising. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to wait 10 minutes between administering these two medications when using a nebulizer.

3. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug isoflurane?

• A. Elevated lipid levels
• B. Nausea
• C. Increased blood flow to the brain
• D. Decreased respiratory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isoflurane is not known to cause elevated lipid levels. Common effects of isoflurane include nausea, increased blood flow to the brain, and decreased respiratory function. Elevated lipid levels are not typically associated with the administration of isoflurane, making choice A the correct answer.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

5. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.

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