Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Somatropin to stimulate growth. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Somatropin is known to cause hyperglycemia as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the client should be instructed to monitor for elevated blood glucose levels closely while taking this medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperglycemia.

3. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.

4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Clients prescribed spironolactone should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium. Increased potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of spironolactone.

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