a nurse is administering amitriptyline to a client who is experiencing cancer pain for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor? Amitriptyline is known to cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from lying down or sitting to a standing position. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent falls and related injuries. Educating the client about moving slowly and changing positions gradually can help mitigate this adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not commonly associated with Amitriptyline use. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.

3. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.

4. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.

5. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

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