a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for atenolol which of the following instructions should the nurse i a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for atenolol which of the following instructions should the nurse i
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Monitoring the heart rate regularly is crucial to promptly detect any significant decreases. This allows for timely intervention and adjustment of the medication regimen if needed, helping to prevent adverse effects associated with bradycardia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning does not address the need for heart rate monitoring. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. Increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the use of Atenolol.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You should rinse your mouth after using this medication.' When providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed albuterol, the nurse should include the instruction to rinse the mouth after each use. This is important to prevent dry mouth and oral infections. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is usually taken during the day to manage symptoms, not at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as palpitations are not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before taking albuterol.

3. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?

Correct answer: Palpable kidneys

Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.

4. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

5. A young mother asks if her 9-month-old can begin drinking cow’s milk instead of formula. You explain that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Breast milk or formula should be used for now because whole cow’s milk is not recommended for infants under 1 year. Cow’s milk is not suitable for infants under 1 year of age as it lacks essential nutrients like iron and can lead to iron deficiency. Therefore, it is important to continue with breast milk or formula to ensure the baby's nutritional needs are met. Choice A is incorrect as cow’s milk is not easier to digest than formula for infants. Choice C is incorrect as the type of milk, whether whole or skim, is not the primary concern at this age. Choice D is incorrect as cow’s milk can actually increase the risk of iron deficiency anemia in infants.

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