Nursing Elites

1. When instructing a client with a new prescription for Timolol on how to insert eye drops, which area should the nurse instruct the client to press on to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct, located near the inner corner of the eye, blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents the medication from entering the systemic circulation. This technique helps to ensure the medication stays localized in the eye, enhancing its therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The bony orbit is the eye socket and not a site to press for preventing systemic absorption. The conjunctival sac is where eye drops are instilled, not pressed on. The outer canthus is also not the correct area to press to prevent systemic absorption.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.

3. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

• A. Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before obtaining the blood product from the refrigerator.
• B. Obtain help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product.
• C. Take a complete set of vital signs before beginning the transfusion and periodically during the transfusion.
• D. Stay with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining help from another healthcare professional to confirm the correct client and blood product is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction during a blood transfusion. This reaction occurs due to ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product reduces the risk of administering the wrong blood type, which could lead to a life-threatening reaction. Checking for patency of the IV line (Choice A) is important but does not directly prevent an acute hemolytic reaction. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is essential for detecting transfusion reactions but does not prevent them. Staying with the client (Choice D) is important for early recognition of adverse reactions but does not address the root cause of preventing an acute hemolytic reaction.

5. A client has a new prescription for Efavirenz, an NNRTI. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
• B. Take this medication with a glass of milk.
• C. Take this medication with a glass of juice.
• D. Take this medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Efavirenz at bedtime to prevent drowsiness and manage central nervous system side effects like dizziness and vivid dreams. While it is important to take the medication at the same time daily for consistent blood levels, the emphasis should be on bedtime to minimize the impact of these side effects. Choices B and C suggesting taking the medication with milk or juice are incorrect and not relevant to optimizing Efavirenz therapy.

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