a nurse is preparing to administer butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder the nurse should identify which of the followin
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ATI Pharmacology

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.

2. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazine, making it the most appropriate choice to address the client's spasms. Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, not for acute dystonia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose, not for acute dystonia. Phytonadione is vitamin K, used for the reversal of warfarin, not for acute dystonia.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

5. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.

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