Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
• B. Rotate the application site daily.
• C. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
• D. Cut the patch in half if needed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches is to rotate the application site daily. This is important to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal absorption of the medication. Applying the patch at the same time every day (Choice A) is not necessary for nitroglycerin patches. Removing the patch for 12 hours each day (Choice C) would disrupt the continuous delivery of medication. Cutting the patch in half (Choice D) can alter the dose and is not recommended unless directed by a healthcare provider.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.

4. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Neurotoxicity
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.

5. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which finding should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxic effects such as bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any significant decreases, as this could indicate Digoxin toxicity and prompt further intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia, not hypertension, hypoglycemia, or hypercalcemia.

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