ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
2. A client has a prescription for Phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that leads to overgrowth of gum tissue. Good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing can help prevent or minimize this side effect. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not directly related to managing the side effects of Phenytoin. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice A) is not a specific instruction related to oral hygiene. Increasing calcium-rich foods intake (choice B) may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to preventing gingival hyperplasia. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice D) is not a necessary instruction for a client taking Phenytoin.
3. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Increased urination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.
4. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your blood glucose levels.
- C. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication with food. Labetalol should be taken with food to increase absorption and reduce the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Taking it with food helps in better absorption and minimizes the potential drop in blood pressure when standing up, which can occur with this medication. Choice B is incorrect as Labetalol is not primarily associated with affecting blood glucose levels. Choice C is incorrect as Labetalol is a beta-blocker that would actually lower heart rate, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because increasing intake of high-sodium foods could counteract the antihypertensive effects of Labetalol.
5. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Cholesterol level.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Blood glucose level.
- D. Calcium level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.
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