a nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is receiving iv heparin for a deep vein thrombosis the client begins vomiting bloo after the heparin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.

3. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

4. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

5. When educating a client who has a prescription for Propranolol, what instruction should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Propranolol is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt cessation can result in rebound hypertension or other cardiac complications. It is crucial for the client to taper off the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as discontinuing the medication based on fatigue alone is not advisable without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because while Propranolol can decrease heart rate, it is not the primary instruction to provide in this scenario.

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