a nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is receiving iv heparin for a deep vein thrombosis the client begins vomiting bloo after the heparin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.

2. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of digoxin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of digoxin and can indicate toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is essential to prevent serious complications in clients taking digoxin.

Similar Questions

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A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?
A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A client has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

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