ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A hospitalized client receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Vitamin K1
- B. Atropine
- C. Protamine
- D. Calcium gluconate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing a serious complication of heparin therapy, likely due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Protamine is the antidote for heparin and can reverse its anticoagulant effects. It is essential to administer protamine promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and manage the bleeding. Vitamin K1 is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or some types of poisoning. Calcium gluconate is used to manage hyperkalemia or calcium channel blocker toxicity, not to reverse heparin's effects.
2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client monitor for and report to the provider?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Pedal edema
- C. Bruising
- D. Yellow-tinged vision
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yellow-tinged vision. Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of Digoxin and may indicate toxicity. Clients should be instructed to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent complications. Dry cough (choice A) is not typically associated with Digoxin. Pedal edema (choice B) is more commonly seen with heart failure but is not a direct adverse effect of Digoxin. Bruising (choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Digoxin.
3. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Methylene blue
- C. Deferoxamine
- D. Alkalinize urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.
4. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bone pain
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is starting therapy with filgrastim, monitoring for bone pain is essential. Filgrastim can lead to increased bone marrow activity, resulting in bone pain as a common adverse effect. Instructing the client to monitor and report any bone pain promptly can help in managing this side effect effectively.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
- A. Bursitis
- B. Sinusitis
- C. Depression
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.
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