ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.
2. You’re caring for Carin who has just had ileostomy surgery. During the first 24 hours post-op, how much drainage can you expect from the ileostomy?
- A. 100 ml
- B. 500 ml
- C. 1500 ml
- D. 5000 ml
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During the first 24 hours post-op, you can expect about 1500 ml of drainage from the ileostomy.
3. The nurse writes a problem of “potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation” for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Instruct the client to delay intercourse until menses
- B. Schedule the client for frequent pelvic sonograms
- C. Explain that the infusion therapy will take 21 days
- D. Discuss that this may cause an ectopic pregnancy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.
4. Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with colon cancer?
- A. Low-fiber, high fat
- B. Low-fat, high-fiber
- C. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate
- D. Low carbohydrate, high protein
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low-fiber, high-fat diet is most commonly associated with an increased risk of colon cancer.
5. What is the primary goal of patient education?
- A. To enhance clinical skills
- B. To ensure patient safety
- C. To empower patients to take control of their health
- D. To improve patient compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To empower patients to take control of their health.' Patient education aims to provide individuals with the knowledge and skills necessary to actively participate in managing their health conditions. Choice A, 'To enhance clinical skills,' is incorrect as patient education focuses on empowering patients, not enhancing healthcare providers' skills. Choice B, 'To ensure patient safety,' is incorrect because while patient safety is crucial, the primary goal of patient education is to empower patients. Choice D, 'To improve patient compliance,' is also incorrect as the main aim is to empower patients to make informed decisions and take an active role in their healthcare.
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