Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.

2. When administering the drug senna to a patient, what must a health care provider inform the patient of?

• A. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensives
• B. This drug is not intended for long-term use
• C. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake
• D. Advise the patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Senna is a laxative used for short-term relief of constipation, not for long-term use. Choice A is incorrect because senna does not lower blood pressure or require combination with antihypertensives. Choice C is unrelated as there is no need to limit fiber intake with senna. Choice D is incorrect as orthostatic hypotension is not a common concern with senna use.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Nephrotoxicity
• B. Hepatotoxicity
• C. Red Man Syndrome
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

4. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

5. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?

• A. Administer antibiotic medication.
• B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
• C. Review WBC laboratory findings.
• D. Apply a dressing to the wound.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.

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