Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Difficulty breathing
• C. Dry oral cavity
• D. Lethargic behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.

2. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. Rinse your mouth after each use.
• D. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rinse your mouth after each use.' Beclomethasone can cause oral candidiasis (thrush) as an adverse effect. Rinsing the mouth after each use helps reduce the risk of developing thrush by removing any residue of the medication from the mouth, which can promote fungal growth. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication with meals, increasing calcium-rich foods intake, or limiting fluid intake are not specific instructions related to minimizing the side effect of oral candidiasis associated with Beclomethasone.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.

4. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

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