ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the patient's platelet count is essential because a decrease in platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding. By assessing the platelet count, the healthcare professional can detect any potential adverse effects related to the medication and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. White blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose levels are not directly affected by Clopidogrel, so they are not the primary values to monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Warm the medication to room temperature before administering.
- B. Administer the medication by slow IV infusion over the recommended time frame.
- C. Dilute the medication in an appropriate solution as per manufacturer guidelines.
- D. Monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Atrophic vaginitis
- B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Thrombophlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.
4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
- B. 2+ pedal edema
- C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
- D. Respirations 12/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.
5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Escitalopram to treat generalized anxiety disorder. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take the medication with food.
- B. I will monitor my blood sugar levels while taking this medication.
- C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
- D. I can crush this medication before swallowing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing Escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. Abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms, so it is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions for gradual discontinuation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Escitalopram should not necessarily be taken with food, there is no direct correlation with blood sugar levels, and the medication should not be crushed before swallowing.
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