Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Monitoring the patient's platelet count is essential because a decrease in platelet count can increase the risk of bleeding. By assessing the platelet count, the healthcare professional can detect any potential adverse effects related to the medication and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. White blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose levels are not directly affected by Clopidogrel, so they are not the primary values to monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication.

2. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Take the medication with breakfast.
• B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
• D. Limit sodium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

4. A client has a prescription for Clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if you experience dry mouth.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
• D. Avoid drinking orange juice while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Taking Clonidine at the same time each day is crucial to ensure consistent blood levels and effectively manage blood pressure. Consistency in timing helps optimize the medication's effectiveness in controlling hypertension.

5. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase your fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia, leading to a decreased heart rate. Monitoring heart rate regularly is essential to detect any significant decreases promptly and seek medical attention. While choices A, C, and D may be relevant to the client's overall health, monitoring heart rate is the priority instruction due to the nature of Atenolol's effects. Taking the medication in the morning can be individualized based on the client's needs and preferences. Avoiding foods high in potassium and increasing fluid intake are generally beneficial but not directly related to managing the side effects of Atenolol.

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