Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication can be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

2. A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
• B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
• C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
• D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.

3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

5. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

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