Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

2. When should Montelukast be taken?

• A. At least two hours before exercise
• B. Daily in the evening
• C. Two hours before exercise or daily in the evening
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening to effectively manage asthma symptoms. Taking it at the same time each day helps maintain a consistent level of the medication in the body, providing optimal control over asthma symptoms and inflammation. Choice A is incorrect because Montelukast should not be taken specifically before exercise, but rather daily. Choice C is incorrect because although taking Montelukast two hours before exercise is not necessary, taking it daily in the evening is essential for its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as Montelukast should be taken daily to manage asthma.

3. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent extrapyramidal effects caused by a previous medication. The healthcare professional should recognize that the medication affected which of the following systems in the client?

• A. Cardiovascular
• B. Immune
• C. Central nervous
• D. Gastrointestinal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Central nervous. Extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders caused by certain medications affecting the central nervous system. These effects can include symptoms like tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Medications like typical antipsychotics induce extrapyramidal effects by interfering with dopamine transmission in the central nervous system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as extrapyramidal effects are specifically related to the central nervous system and not the cardiovascular, immune, or gastrointestinal systems.

5. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. aPTT
• B. Platelet count
• C. BUN
• D. PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.

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