Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

2. A client is receiving epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Leukocytosis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Fever

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hypertension when receiving epoetin alfa. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to increased blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension promptly. Leukocytosis refers to an increased white blood cell count and is not directly related to epoetin alfa treatment. Hyperkalemia is an elevated potassium level, which is not a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa. Fever is not a typical finding associated with epoetin alfa therapy.

3. A client has a prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption and efficacy. Taking it with food or antacids can interfere with its absorption, leading to reduced effectiveness of the medication.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large amounts of green leafy vegetables.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. I will report any signs of bleeding to my provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

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