ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Increased urination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.
2. When administering IV Amphotericin B to a client with a systemic fungal infection, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Constipation
- C. Fever
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is fever. Amphotericin B is known to cause adverse effects such as fever, chills, and nausea during infusion. Monitoring for fever is essential as it can indicate an adverse reaction. To manage these effects, pretreatment with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen can be administered.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?
- A. Name
- B. Dosage
- C. Route
- D. Frequency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
4. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the Clonidine as prescribed.
- B. Provide ice chips to the patient.
- C. Educate the patient on Clonidine's effects.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.
5. A client is starting a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Rise slowly from a sitting position.
- C. Avoid salt substitutes.
- D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting enalapril is to avoid salt substitutes. Salt substitutes may contain potassium, which could lead to elevated potassium levels when combined with enalapril, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific need to take enalapril with food, rise slowly from a sitting position, or avoid exposure to sunlight when taking this medication.
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