a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for verapamil to treat angina the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023

1. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

2. When caring for a client prescribed warfarin, which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct laboratory test to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin is the PT/INR. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and the PT/INR levels indicate the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Therefore, monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and is protected from potential complications related to clotting. Choice A (aPTT) is incorrect because while it measures the clotting time, it is not the preferred test for monitoring warfarin therapy. Choice B (Platelet count) is incorrect as it assesses the number of platelets and not the medication's therapeutic effect. Choice C (BUN) is unrelated to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy and is primarily used to assess kidney function.

3. A client has a prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate is to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position helps prevent this adverse effect by reducing the risk of reflux of the medication into the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day with a full glass of plain water. Choice B is incorrect because Alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because frequent headaches are not a common side effect of Alendronate.

4. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.

5. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.

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