which of the following is the antidote for the toxin copper
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

2. A client has a new prescription for Losartan. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and manage any potential hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels is not typically required when a patient is on Losartan unless there are specific indications or comorbidities that warrant such monitoring.

3. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Etanercept can cause bone marrow suppression, so it is important to monitor blood counts regularly.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.

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