Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Aminocaproic acid
• C. Atropine
• D. Penicillamine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases, as tachycardia can indicate a severe adverse reaction to the medication. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Tachycardia.

3. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Nitroglycerin is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. Option A is incorrect because taking a tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved may lead to delayed intervention. Option C is incorrect as taking Nitroglycerin at bedtime is not indicated for chest pain. Option D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually at the onset of chest pain, not on an empty stomach.

4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

5. A client with asthma has new prescriptions for cromolyn and albuterol by nebulizer. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If my breathing begins to feel tight, I will use the cromolyn immediately.
• B. I will be sure to take the albuterol before taking the cromolyn.
• C. I will use both medications immediately after exercising.
• D. I will administer the medications 10 minutes apart.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking albuterol before cromolyn ensures that the airways are open, allowing the cromolyn to reach the lungs effectively. Choice A is incorrect because cromolyn is a preventive medication and should be used regularly, not just when symptoms worsen. Choice C is incorrect because medications should be used as prescribed, not based on a specific event like exercising. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to wait 10 minutes between administering these two medications when using a nebulizer.

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