Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Aminocaproic acid
• C. Atropine
• D. Penicillamine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Fever
• D. Rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is contraindicated in clients with bradycardia as it can further lower the heart rate, potentially leading to more serious complications. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, and administering metoprolol in such cases can exacerbate this condition, causing adverse effects on cardiac output. Hypertension, fever, and rash are not contraindications for metoprolol administration.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum sodium.
• C. Serum chloride.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. I can walk a mile a day.
• B. I've had a backache for several days.
• C. I am urinating more frequently.
• D. I feel nauseated and have no appetite.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and loss of appetite are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.

5. How should the oral form of albuterol be taken?

• A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
• B. Administer before meals with water
• C. Administer after meals with water
• D. Administer in the morning with milk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to take oral albuterol is with meals to minimize gastric irritation. Taking it with food can help reduce the risk of stomach upset that may occur when the medication is taken on an empty stomach. This approach can improve tolerability and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, after meals, or in the morning with milk does not address the issue of minimizing gastric irritation, which is a common side effect of the medication.

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