Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Aminocaproic acid
• C. Atropine
• D. Penicillamine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

2. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

4. While teaching a client starting therapy with rituximab, which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to promptly address any signs of infection and ensure the client's safety during treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to a serious complication requiring immediate attention.

5. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
• B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
• C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
• D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.

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