Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.

2. What is the first type of medication prescribed to prevent angina pain for a client?

• A. Beta blockers
• B. Alpha blockers
• C. Calcium channel blockers
• D. Organic nitrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta blockers are the first-line medication prescribed to prevent angina pain. They work by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing angina attacks by improving blood flow to the heart. Alpha blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates are also used in angina treatment but are typically considered after beta blockers.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots forming and leading to serious complications like pulmonary embolism. Clients with a history of deep-vein thrombosis are at a higher risk of recurrent thromboembolic events when taking tamoxifen, making it unsafe for such individuals. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy, as migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not directly interact with tamoxifen's mechanism of action or pose significant risks when used together.

4. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drugs ending in -tidine are histamine (H2) receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine at the H2 receptors, commonly used to reduce stomach acid production. Therefore, the correct answer is an 'H antagonist.' It is essential to be familiar with drug suffixes as they can provide clues to the drug's class and function.

5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

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