a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril which of the following instructions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it's essential to avoid salt substitutes that may contain potassium which can further elevate potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once daily in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can exacerbate hyperkalemia when taking Lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect as Lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

2. When administering Lithium to a patient, what is a life-threatening side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is being treated with Lithium, a life-threatening side effect to watch out for is seizures. Lithium can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures. Seizures are serious and necessitate prompt medical intervention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is not a common life-threatening side effect of Lithium. Pancreatitis can be a side effect of Lithium, but it is not typically life-threatening. Headache is a common side effect of Lithium, but it is not considered life-threatening.

3. A client is taking Glipizide to treat Diabetes Mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood glucose level. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level is crucial when taking Glipizide, a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in individuals with Diabetes Mellitus. By monitoring the blood glucose level, the nurse can evaluate the effectiveness of the medication in managing the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Glipizide in treating Diabetes Mellitus. Cholesterol level, hematocrit, and calcium level may be important for other aspects of the client's health but are not the primary indicators of Glipizide's effectiveness.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

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