ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is educating a client who has a new prescription for Vitamin B12 injections. Which of the following statements should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
- C. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.' Clients with conditions like pernicious anemia or other causes of vitamin B12 deficiency may require lifelong cyanocobalamin supplementation to prevent deficiency. This is because their bodies are unable to absorb B12 from dietary sources adequately, necessitating ongoing injections to maintain optimal B12 levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A full glass of water is not necessary for Vitamin B12 injections. Metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of Vitamin B12 injections, and there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products specifically in relation to Vitamin B12 injections.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.
3. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:
- A. Headaches
- B. Cold remedy
- C. Neuropathic pain
- D. Antianxiety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin, an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant medication, is also used off-label for treating neuropathic pain. While its primary indications are for managing heart rhythm disorders and seizures, it has shown efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, expanding its clinical utility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as phenytoin is not commonly used for headaches, cold remedies, or antianxiety purposes.
4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Dry cough
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Increased urination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.
5. A client has a prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of the body.
- B. Remove the patch every 12 hours.
- C. Massage the patch after applying it.
- D. Place the patch over a hairless area of the body.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to place it over a hairless area of the body. This is essential to ensure proper adhesion and consistent absorption of the medication. Hair can impede the patch's ability to stick to the skin and deliver the medication effectively. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Applying the patch to the same site every day (Choice A) may lead to skin irritation, removing the patch every 12 hours (Choice B) is not typically recommended for Nitroglycerin patches, and massaging the patch after applying it (Choice C) could alter its integrity and affect drug delivery.
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