a nurse working in an emergency department is caring for a client who has benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose which of the following actions i

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A healthcare professional working in an emergency department is caring for a client who has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the healthcare professional's priority?

A. Administer flumazenil.
B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
C. Infuse IV fluids.
D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When managing a client with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to assess the client. Identifying the client's level of orientation allows the healthcare professional to understand the client's cognitive status, which is crucial for further interventions and decision-making in the care plan. Administering flumazenil (Choice A) may precipitate withdrawal symptoms and should be done cautiously. Infusing IV fluids (Choice C) can be important but is not the priority over assessing the client. Gastric lavage (Choice D) is not typically recommended due to the risk of complications and its limited effectiveness in cases of Benzodiazepine overdose.

2. A client is starting therapy with bicalutamide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

A. Muscle pain
B. Flushing
C. Gynecomastia
D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is gynecomastia (Choice C). Bicalutamide is associated with gynecomastia due to its antiandrogenic properties. Gynecomastia, the development of breast tissue in males, is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking bicalutamide. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

A. Hypertension
B. Difficulty breathing
C. Dry oral cavity
D. Lethargic behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clonidine, a Sympathoplegic, typically causes hypotension rather than hypertension. The other side effects associated with Clonidine include dry oral cavity, lethargic behavior, and difficulty breathing, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
B. 2+ pedal edema
C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

5. What classification of drug is Penicillin?

A. Antiarrhythmic
B. Anticonvulsant
C. Antibacterial
D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penicillin is classified as an antibacterial drug, specifically used to treat bacterial infections. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria, making it an effective treatment for various bacterial infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Penicillin does not belong to these drug classifications. Penicillin does not have any direct effect on heart rhythm (antiarrhythmic), does not treat seizures (anticonvulsant), and is not used to stabilize mood (mood stabilizer).