Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional working in an emergency department is caring for a client who has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the healthcare professional's priority?

• A. Administer flumazenil.
• B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
• C. Infuse IV fluids.
• D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When managing a client with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to assess the client. Identifying the client's level of orientation allows the healthcare professional to understand the client's cognitive status, which is crucial for further interventions and decision-making in the care plan. Administering flumazenil (Choice A) may precipitate withdrawal symptoms and should be done cautiously. Infusing IV fluids (Choice C) can be important but is not the priority over assessing the client. Gastric lavage (Choice D) is not typically recommended due to the risk of complications and its limited effectiveness in cases of Benzodiazepine overdose.

2. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?

• A. Metallic taste
• B. Nausea
• C. Ataxia
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

5. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for an inflammatory condition and is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• D. Take this medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take Prednisone in the morning to prevent insomnia. Prednisone can cause insomnia as a side effect, so taking it in the morning can help minimize this issue. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of Prednisone administration to optimize its effectiveness and minimize adverse effects.

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