ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?
- A. Constipation
- B. Metallic taste
- C. Headache
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.
2. The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?
- A. Monthly self-breast exams
- B. Smoking cessation
- C. Annual colonoscopies
- D. Monthly testicular exams
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In North America, lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths among both men and women, and the primary risk factor for lung cancer is smoking. Therefore, promoting smoking cessation is a critical public health intervention that directly addresses this significant health issue. By helping individuals quit smoking, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the incidence of lung cancer and associated deaths, making this intervention a priority in cancer prevention efforts.
3. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place a tongue depressor in the client's mouth
- B. Loosen tight clothing around the client
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.
4. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer pain medication as ordered.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's symptoms of a pounding headache and blurred vision are indicative of autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. The nurse's priority action should be to check the client's blood pressure as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension. Identifying and addressing this elevated blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as seizures, stroke, or even death. Once the blood pressure is assessed and managed, further interventions can be implemented to address the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia.
5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?
- A. Reduced cardiac function
- B. First-pass effect
- C. Reduced hepatic function
- D. Increased gastric motility
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This situation can result in increased drug levels in the body, causing drowsiness and other side effects. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary to prevent such adverse effects in older adult clients. Choice A, reduced cardiac function, is not directly related to the metabolism of the medication and is unlikely to cause drowsiness. Choice B, first-pass effect, refers to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before it enters circulation, but it is not the cause of drowsiness in this scenario. Choice D, increased gastric motility, does not play a significant role in the metabolism of the medication and is not a likely cause of the client's drowsiness.
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