ace inhibitors
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. How do ACE inhibitors work?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.

2. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can increase the risk of kidney stones as a side effect. To prevent this adverse effect, it is essential for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration can help in preventing the formation of kidney stones by keeping urine dilute and flushing out substances that can lead to stone formation.

3. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to rinse the mouth after each use of Beclomethasone. This practice helps reduce the risk of developing oral fungal infections associated with inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to limit fluid intake while taking this medication. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific indication to increase vitamin B12 intake with Beclomethasone. Choice D is incorrect as Beclomethasone should be used according to the prescribed schedule, not as needed.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has chronic angina. Treatment for the condition has been unsuccessful. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of chronic angina where initial treatment has not been successful, Ranolazine (Ranexa) is often prescribed. This medication helps by reducing the frequency of angina episodes. Atenolol, Nitroglycerin, and Sildenafil are also used in angina management but Ranolazine is more specifically indicated in cases of refractory angina where other treatments have failed.

5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

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