ace inhibitors
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. How do ACE inhibitors work?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.

2. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

3. While collecting data from a client taking Gemfibrozil, a nurse should identify which of the following assessment findings as an adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that the nurse should identify when assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil. It is associated with liver impairment, which can be a side effect of this medication. Mental status changes and tremors are not typically associated with Gemfibrozil use. Pneumonia is not a common adverse reaction to this medication, and its occurrence is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use.

4. A client is being taught about taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diarrhea can indicate the development of a suprainfection, which can be serious. Therefore, it is essential for the client to notify the healthcare provider if they experience diarrhea while taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption, discontinuing the medication prematurely can lead to treatment failure, and taking it just before bedtime may increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to the potential reflux of the medication.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it's essential to avoid salt substitutes that may contain potassium which can further elevate potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once daily in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can exacerbate hyperkalemia when taking Lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect as Lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

Similar Questions

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