Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the client expect before beginning this medication?

• A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
• B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
• C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
• D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating Calcitonin-salmon, a skin test for allergy to the medication may be performed to prevent anaphylactic reactions. Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivities to the drug, particularly in individuals with fish allergies. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to assess the client's potential allergic response to Calcitonin-salmon through a skin test. The other options are not relevant in this context. An ECG is not typically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis, nor is a Mantoux test or liver function tests.

2. When a client has a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following foods should they avoid based on the nurse's instructions?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Potatoes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, like broccoli, as they can counteract the medication's effectiveness. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming high vitamin K foods can interfere with its anticoagulant effects. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not high in vitamin K and do not have a significant impact on Warfarin therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.

4. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?

• A. Sartan
• B. Ase
• C. Olol
• D. Pril

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.

5. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

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