Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the client expect before beginning this medication?

• A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
• B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
• C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
• D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating Calcitonin-salmon, a skin test for allergy to the medication may be performed to prevent anaphylactic reactions. Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivities to the drug, particularly in individuals with fish allergies. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to assess the client's potential allergic response to Calcitonin-salmon through a skin test. The other options are not relevant in this context. An ECG is not typically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis, nor is a Mantoux test or liver function tests.

2. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Blocks hormone receptors
• B. Increases immune response
• C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
• D. Stops DNA replication during cell division

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of the ACE Inhibitor (Captopril)?

• A. Rash
• B. Angioedema
• C. Cough
• D. Congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Congestion is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors such as Captopril. ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation, rash, and angioedema, but congestion is not typically listed as a side effect.

4. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?

• A. Asthma
• B. Diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypertension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.

5. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet every 15 minutes until pain is relieved.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses.
• C. Take one tablet at bedtime.
• D. Take one tablet on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of Nitroglycerin involves taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then another tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This protocol aims to relieve angina symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because waiting 15 minutes between doses may delay symptom relief. Choice C is incorrect as Nitroglycerin is not typically taken at bedtime but rather during angina episodes. Choice D is incorrect because Nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually, so it doesn't need to be taken on an empty stomach.

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