Nursing Elites

1. While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?

• A. Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning
• B. Client who is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
• C. Client in a motor vehicle crash who is receiving 6 units of packed red blood cells
• D. Client with uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous nasogastric suctioning can lead to hypokalemia due to the loss of gastric contents rich in potassium. Therefore, a client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning is at risk for hypokalemia. Option B is incorrect because ACE inhibitors may lead to hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Option C is incorrect as receiving packed red blood cells can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in the blood product. Option D is incorrect because a serum pH level of 7.33 indicates acidosis, which is not directly associated with hypokalemia.

2. A nurse is taking care of a 65-year-old female patient in a medical-surgical unit who is in renal failure; during the assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. When the nurse takes her blood pressure, she has a spasm in her wrist and hand. The nurse suspects:

• A. Hypophosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of tingling in the lips and fingers along with the wrist and hand spasm are indicative of tetany, a characteristic manifestation of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia can present with sensations of tingling in the extremities and around the mouth. The spasm in the wrist and hand when taking blood pressure could be due to slight ischemia of the ulnar nerve, further supporting the suspicion of hypocalcemia in this patient. Hypophosphatemia, hypermagnesemia, and hyperkalemia do not typically present with these specific symptoms and manifestations.

3. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

5. A nurse in the neurologic ICU has orders to infuse a hypertonic solution into a patient with increased intracranial pressure. This solution will increase the number of dissolved particles in the patients blood, creating pressure for fluids in the tissues to shift into the capillaries and increase the blood volume. This process is best described as which of the following?

• A. Hydrostatic pressure
• B. Osmosis and osmolality
• C. Diffusion
• D. Active transport

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

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