Nursing Elites

1. While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?

• A. Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning
• B. Client who is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
• C. Client in a motor vehicle crash who is receiving 6 units of packed red blood cells
• D. Client with uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous nasogastric suctioning can lead to hypokalemia due to the loss of gastric contents rich in potassium. Therefore, a client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning is at risk for hypokalemia. Option B is incorrect because ACE inhibitors may lead to hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Option C is incorrect as receiving packed red blood cells can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in the blood product. Option D is incorrect because a serum pH level of 7.33 indicates acidosis, which is not directly associated with hypokalemia.

2. The physician has ordered a peripheral IV to be inserted before the patient goes for computed tomography. What should the nurse do when selecting a site on the hand or arm for insertion of an IV catheter?

• A. Choose a site with minimal hair if available.
• B. Consider potential effects on the patient's mobility when selecting a site.
• C. Instruct the patient to hold his arm in a dependent position before insertion.
• D. Remove the tourniquet after 2 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When selecting a site for IV insertion on the hand or arm, it is important to consider the potential effects on the patient's mobility. The chosen site should not interfere with the patient's movement. Instructing the patient to hold his arm in a dependent position helps increase blood flow, aiding in vein visualization and insertion. It is advisable to choose a site with minimal hair if possible for better adhesion of the dressing. Removing the tourniquet after 2 minutes is recommended to prevent complications like hemoconcentration and potential vein damage. Therefore, option B is the correct choice as it aligns with best practices for IV insertion.

3. A nurse is caring for clients with electrolyte imbalances on a medical-surgical unit. Which clinical manifestations are correctly paired with the contributing electrolyte imbalance? (Select all that do not apply.)

• A. Hypokalemia Flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression
• B. Hyperphosphatemia Paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness
• C. . Hyponatremia Decreased level of consciousness
• D.

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. A newly graduated nurse is admitting a patient with a long history of emphysema. The new nurses preceptor is going over the patients past lab reports with the new nurse. The nurse takes note that the patients PaCO2 has been between 56 and 64 mm Hg for several months. The preceptor asks the new nurse why they will be cautious administering oxygen. What is the new nurses best response?

• A. The patients calcium will rise dramatically due to pituitary stimulation.
• B. Oxygen will increase the patients intracranial pressure and create confusion.
• C. Oxygen may cause the patient to hyperventilate and become acidotic.
• D. Using oxygen may result in the patient developing carbon dioxide narcosis and hypoxemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who requires measurement of specific gravity every 4 hours. What does this test detect?

• A. Nutritional deficit
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Fluid volume status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Specific gravity is a test used to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate urine. Changes in specific gravity can indicate fluid volume status, such as dehydration (fluid volume deficit) or overhydration (fluid volume excess). Options A, B, and C are incorrect as specific gravity does not directly detect nutritional deficits, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia.

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