a nurse is planning care for a client who is hyperventilating the clients arterial blood gas values are ph 730 pao2 94 mm hg paco2 31 mm hg and hco3 2
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is hyperventilating. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.30, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 31 mm Hg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L. Which question should the nurse ask when developing this clients plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

2. The patient asks the nurse if he will die if air bubbles get into the IV tubing. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because air emboli are more commonly associated with central vein access. Usually, only relatively large volumes of air administered rapidly are dangerous. It is a significant concern when air enters a central venous access line. Choice A is incorrect as it downplays the risk and is not entirely accurate. Choice C is too general and does not specifically address the patient's concern. Choice D is dismissive and does not provide any relevant information regarding the risk of air bubbles in IV tubing.

3. Which mineral is important in hemoglobin production?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Iron (Fe) is a critical mineral in hemoglobin production. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is essential for transporting oxygen throughout the body. Sodium (Choice A), Iodine (Choice B), and Chloride (Choice D) are not directly involved in hemoglobin production. Sodium is an electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance, Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production, and Chloride is an electrolyte that helps regulate fluid balance and acidity in the body.

4. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

5. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patient's plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to assess what aspect of the patient's health?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the specific gravity in a patient with SIADH helps the nurse evaluate the patient's fluid volume status. Specific gravity indicates the concentration of solutes in the urine and can detect if the patient has a fluid volume deficit or excess. Nutritional status, potassium balance, and calcium balance are not directly assessed through specific gravity testing. Nutritional status is typically evaluated through dietary intake and anthropometric measurements. Potassium balance is assessed through blood tests and ECG monitoring. Calcium balance is evaluated through blood tests and bone density scans. Therefore, the correct answer is assessing fluid volume status through specific gravity testing.

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