Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Agitation
• D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Report any signs of bleeding to your provider.
• D. Use an electric shaver for shaving.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of warfarin therapy that needs prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while oral hygiene measures, dietary considerations, and skin care are important, they are not the priority when teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Monitoring for and reporting signs of bleeding is crucial due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

3. A client with cirrhosis is about to receive a dose of lactulose. The client questions the need for the medication, stating they are not constipated. The nurse should explain that lactulose is used in cirrhosis to reduce levels of which component in the bloodstream?

• A. Glucose
• B. Ammonia
• C. Potassium
• D. Bicarbonate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to clients with cirrhosis to lower blood ammonia levels, thus aiding in the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels in cirrhosis can lead to cognitive impairment and hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is B (Ammonia). Glucose (Choice A) is not the component targeted by lactulose in cirrhosis. Potassium (Choice C) and Bicarbonate (Choice D) are not directly affected by lactulose administration in cirrhosis.

4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?

• A. Pulmonary Edema
• B. Cough suppression
• C. Sedation
• D. Pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.

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