ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Nitrofurantoin. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of vitamin C.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin should be taken with food to enhance absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Taking it with a meal or a snack can help minimize stomach upset. Instructing the client to take the medication with food ensures optimal effectiveness and tolerability of the drug. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Nitrofurantoin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as there is no requirement to take Nitrofurantoin at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Nitrofurantoin.
2. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
- B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
- C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
- D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.
3. A client reports taking Aspirin four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which of the following prescribed medications taken by the client is contraindicated with aspirin?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Metformin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can increase the effect of anticoagulants like warfarin, leading to an elevated risk of bleeding. Therefore, the concurrent use of aspirin and warfarin is generally contraindicated due to this potential interaction. Digoxin is not contraindicated with aspirin in most cases. Metformin and nitroglycerin do not have significant interactions with aspirin, making them less likely to be contraindicated in this scenario.
4. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Levofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking Levofloxacin with dairy products. This is because calcium in dairy products can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Patients should be advised to take Levofloxacin either 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Levofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of Levofloxacin administration is not specified as at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods specifically for Levofloxacin administration.
5. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
- A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
- B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.
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