a nurse is administering gentamicin by iv infusion at 0900 the medication will take 1 hr to infuse when should the nurse plan to obtain a blood sample

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?

A. 1000
B. 1030
C. 1100
D. 1130

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.

2. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?

A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
B. Mood stabilizers
C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
D. Vascular headache suppressants

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.

3. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

A. Dizziness
B. Fever
C. Urinary frequency
D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

4. What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?

A. Antidiabetic
B. Anticonvulsant
C. Mood stabilizer
D. Antianxiety agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and control seizures. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, making it effective in managing conditions like epilepsy. Antidiabetic medications are used to regulate blood sugar levels, mood stabilizers help manage mood disorders, and antianxiety agents are used to reduce anxiety symptoms, none of which are the primary therapeutic action of Phenytoin.

5. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

A. Aspirin
B. Isosorbide
C. Clopidogrel
D. Atorvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.