what is the best way to prevent transmission of infectious agents
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What is the best way to prevent transmission of infectious agents?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wash hands. Washing hands is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious agents. Antibiotics are not effective in preventing infections, and their overuse can lead to antibiotic resistance. Calling a practitioner for herbal supplements is not a primary method for preventing the transmission of infectious agents. Avoiding public areas entirely is impractical and not as effective as proper hand hygiene.

2. What causes the appearance of a barrel chest in clients with emphysema?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Air trapping in the alveoli. A barrel chest in emphysema results from the hyperinflation of the lungs due to air trapping in the alveoli. This leads to increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema is swelling caused by fluid retention in tissues, not associated with a barrel chest in emphysema. Bacterial infections in the lungs can lead to conditions like pneumonia but do not directly cause a barrel chest. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm could affect breathing mechanics but is not specifically linked to the development of a barrel chest in emphysema.

3. A male patient is being treated with sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use of nitrates. Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, and the combination can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A, peptic ulcer disease, is not a contraindication for sildenafil use. Choice B, a history of myocardial infarction, is not a contraindication unless the patient is also taking nitrates. Choice C, recent use of antihypertensive medications, is not a contraindication but requires caution as the combination can lead to additive effects lowering blood pressure.

4. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

5. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would provide the most plausible indication for the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in a patient with renal failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a patient with renal failure, the use of epoetin alfa (Epogen) is primarily aimed at addressing the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to impaired erythropoiesis. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, thereby improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This would directly address the activity intolerance commonly seen in patients with renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary purpose of using epoetin alfa in this context. Risk for infection, powerlessness, and ineffective breathing pattern are important considerations in the care of a patient with renal failure, but they are not the primary indications for using epoetin alfa.

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