ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. A 60-year-old male patient presents with severe and persistent pain in his left leg and hip that worsens with activity. After further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true about osteosarcoma?
- A. It is more common in children and young adults.
- B. Early diagnosis improves the prognosis.
- C. It is frequently located in the leg bones.
- D. All of the above are true.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be found in any bone but is most commonly located in the long bones of the legs. While it is more prevalent in children and young adults, it can also occur in older individuals like the 60-year-old male patient in this case. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better prognosis in osteosarcoma cases. Therefore, all the statements provided are true regarding osteosarcoma, making option D the correct answer. Option A is accurate as osteosarcoma is more common in children and young adults. Option B is correct as early diagnosis improves the prognosis. Option C is accurate as osteosarcoma is frequently located in the leg bones.
2. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, what pathophysiologic process underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
- A. The destruction of myelin results in a reduction in Schwann cell production in the client's PNS.
- B. The lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells compromises the axonal transport system.
- C. Without remyelination, the axon will eventually die.
- D. A deficit of myelin makes the client more susceptible to infection by potential pathogens.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the destruction of myelin leads to axonal damage. If remyelination does not occur, the axon will eventually degenerate and die, impacting nerve function. Choice A is incorrect because the destruction of myelin does not affect Schwann cell production. Choice B is incorrect as the lack of myelin directly affects the conduction of nerve impulses, not the axonal transport system. Choice D is incorrect as a deficit of myelin does not predispose the client to infections by potential pathogens.
3. A staff member asks what leukocytosis means. How should the nurse respond? Leukocytosis can be defined as:
- A. A normal leukocyte count
- B. A high leukocyte count
- C. A low leukocyte count
- D. Another term for leukopenia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Leukocytosis refers to an abnormally high leukocyte count. This condition is characterized by an elevated number of white blood cells in the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect because leukocytosis does not refer to a normal leukocyte count. Choice C is incorrect as leukocytosis is not related to a low leukocyte count. Choice D is incorrect as leukopenia is the opposite of leukocytosis, indicating a low white blood cell count.
4. A female patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and begun multiple-drug therapy. The woman has asked the nurse why it is necessary for her to take several different drugs instead of one single drug. How should the nurse best respond to the patient's question?
- A. “Multiple drugs are used because doctors need to combat the TB bacteria from different angles to effectively treat the infection.”
- B. “The use of multiple drugs prevents the development of drug-resistant TB.”
- C. “Multiple drugs are prescribed because the final testing results for TB can take up to 3 weeks to confirm the most effective treatment.”
- D. “Multiple drugs are used in order to speed up the course of treatment.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using multiple drugs in tuberculosis treatment helps prevent the development of drug-resistant TB. This approach is crucial because if the infection is not completely eradicated, the remaining bacteria may become resistant to the single drug used, making future treatments less effective. Choice A is incorrect because the use of multiple drugs is not due to uncertainty about which drug will work, but rather to address the bacteria from different angles. Choice C is incorrect as it misleads the patient about the reason for using multiple drugs. Choice D is also incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple drugs is not to speed up treatment but to ensure effectiveness and prevent resistance.
5. In emphysema, what features result in impaired oxygenation?
- A. The bronchioles are inflamed and filled with mucus
- B. The alveoli have lost surfactant and collapse
- C. Enlarged, permanently inflated alveoli
- D. The accumulation of purulent fluid in the bronchioles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In emphysema, impaired oxygenation results from enlarged and permanently inflated alveoli, leading to reduced surface area for gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In emphysema, bronchioles are not typically filled with mucus, alveoli losing surfactant and collapsing is more characteristic of conditions like atelectasis, and purulent fluid accumulation in the bronchioles is commonly seen in conditions like pneumonia, not emphysema.
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