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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:
- A. Failure of B cells to mature
- B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
- C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
- D. Selective IgG deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.
2. What are the signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease?
- A. Constipation with gastric distension.
- B. Bradycardia and bradypnea.
- C. Hyperthermia and tachycardia.
- D. Constipation and lethargy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a thyroid crisis resulting from Graves' disease, the patient typically experiences symptoms such as hyperthermia (elevated body temperature) and tachycardia (rapid heart rate). These symptoms are indicative of the hypermetabolic state seen in thyroid storm. Choices A and D are incorrect as constipation and lethargy are not typical signs of a thyroid crisis; instead, patients with hyperthyroidism often experience diarrhea and agitation. Choice B is incorrect because bradycardia (slow heart rate) and bradypnea (slow breathing rate) are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than a thyroid crisis in Graves' disease.
3. A nurse is providing education to a patient starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the long-term risks associated with HRT?
- A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
- B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
- D. HRT may decrease the risk of breast cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly with long-term use.
4. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
5. In a postmenopausal woman, what condition can be prevented by administering estradiol (Estraderm)?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Uterine cancer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osteoporosis. Estradiol, a form of estrogen, is used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by maintaining bone density. Choice A, Endometriosis, is incorrect as estradiol is not used to prevent or treat this condition. Choice B, Amenorrhea, is not prevented by estradiol but rather may result from hormonal changes. Choice D, Uterine cancer, is not directly prevented by estradiol; in fact, long-term unopposed estrogen use can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
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