Nursing Elites

1. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:

• A. Failure of B cells to mature
• B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
• C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
• D. Selective IgG deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.

2. How can a nurse determine the efficacy of a child's mebendazole treatment for roundworm after 3 weeks?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Stool for ova and parasites
• C. Colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy
• D. Rectal swab for culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for ova and parasites. To assess the efficacy of treatment for roundworm, the nurse would examine the stool for ova (eggs) and parasites. This test helps determine if the infection has been cleared. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because liver function tests are not commonly used to monitor roundworm treatment efficacy, and colonoscopy/sigmoidoscopy as well as rectal swab for culture are not routine diagnostic tests for assessing the effectiveness of mebendazole treatment for roundworm.

3. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Pneumonia
• C. Bronchospasm
• D. Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.

4. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

• A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. Entrance inhibitors
• D. Highly active antiretroviral therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

5. A nurse is administering testosterone to a patient with hypogonadism. What outcome indicates that the treatment is having the desired effect?

• A. Increased libido
• B. Increased muscle mass
• C. Improved secondary sexual characteristics
• D. Decreased sperm count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Improved secondary sexual characteristics.' Testosterone therapy in patients with hypogonadism typically leads to improved secondary sexual characteristics, which include increased muscle mass and libido. While increased libido (choice A) and increased muscle mass (choice B) are effects of testosterone therapy, they are more specific outcomes related to secondary sexual characteristics. Decreased sperm count (choice D) would not be an expected outcome of testosterone therapy for hypogonadism, as testosterone is essential for sperm production.

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