Nursing Elites

1. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:

• A. Failure of B cells to mature
• B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
• C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
• D. Selective IgG deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.

2. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
• C. Estrogen
• D. Lactate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

3. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:

• A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
• B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
• C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
• D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.

4. A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:

• A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attacking his motor neurons.
• B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
• C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
• D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons. Choice A is incorrect because SMA is not caused by ingesting bacteria from playing in soil. Choice B is incorrect as SMA is not something that a person grows out of. Choice D is incorrect because SMA is not a demyelination disorder that affects nerve roots and muscle groups.

5. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

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