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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:
- A. Failure of B cells to mature
- B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
- C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
- D. Selective IgG deficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.
2. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Histamine
- C. Bradykinin
- D. Nitric oxide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradykinin is the correct answer. It is a potent mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and is responsible for the pain associated with inflammation. Serotonin and histamine are also mediators of inflammation, but they are not primarily known for increasing capillary permeability or inducing pain. Nitric oxide is involved in various physiological processes but is not a primary mediator of inflammation that causes increased capillary permeability and pain.
3. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should
- A. administer the drug with lactated Ringer's.
- B. infuse the drug no faster than 200 mg/h.
- C. avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV.
- D. administer prophylactic heparin prior to the fluconazole.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.
4. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within
- A. 48 hours.
- B. a week to 10 days.
- C. 2 to 3 weeks.
- D. 4 to 6 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.
5. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?
- A. Has your child received all recommended vaccinations?
- B. Has your child been feeding poorly or showing signs of constipation?
- C. Has your child been exposed to any sick individuals?
- D. Has your child been displaying signs of respiratory distress?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.
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