Nursing Elites

1. DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immune deficiency caused by:

• A. Failure of B cells to mature
• B. Congenital lack of thymic tissue
• C. Failure of formed elements of blood to develop
• D. Selective IgG deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a congenital lack of thymic tissue, which plays a crucial role in T cell development and maturation, leading to immune deficiency. Choice A is incorrect because DiGeorge syndrome primarily affects T cells, not B cells. Choice C is incorrect as it is too broad and not specific to the thymus. Choice D is incorrect as selective IgG deficiency is a different condition unrelated to DiGeorge syndrome.

2. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What important instruction should the nurse provide about the use of this medication?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
• C. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• D. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels. This is crucial for the effectiveness of medroxyprogesterone acetate in treating endometriosis. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific instruction related to food intake. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is not a specific consideration for this medication.

3. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?

• A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms.
• B. Apply the gel to the lower abdomen or thighs.
• C. Apply the gel to the face and neck.
• D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is important to minimize the risk of transfer to others. Applying the gel to the lower abdomen, thighs, face, or neck can increase the risk of transfer to others, especially women and children who should avoid contact with testosterone gel. Applying it to the scalp and back is not recommended as these areas are not suitable for absorption of the medication.

4. What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on histologic exam?

• A. Reed-Sternberg cells
• B. Red-stained cells
• C. Human Papillomavirus
• D. B-cells and T-cells

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reed-Sternberg cells. Reed-Sternberg cells are large, abnormal B-cells that are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are identified on histologic examination of lymph node biopsies from patients with Hodgkin disease. Choice B, 'Red-stained cells,' is vague and does not describe a specific feature of Hodgkin disease. Choice C, 'Human Papillomavirus,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is not caused by HPV. Choice D, 'B-cells and T-cells,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B-cells.

5. After a 27-year-old woman with epilepsy had a generalized seizure, she feels tired and falls asleep. This is:

• A. an ominous sign.
• B. normal and termed the postictal period.
• C. a reflection of an underlying brain tumor.
• D. only worrisome if there are focal neurologic deficits after.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: normal and termed the postictal period. The postictal period is a common phase following a seizure where the individual may experience fatigue, confusion, or sleepiness. It is a normal part of the seizure event and does not necessarily indicate a serious issue. Choice A is incorrect because feeling tired and falling asleep after a seizure is not an ominous sign but rather a typical postictal symptom. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario provided that links the symptoms to an underlying brain tumor. Choice D is incorrect because the absence of focal neurologic deficits does not make the postictal period worrisome.

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