Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. What is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Provide oral fluids
• C. Encourage fluid intake
• D. Administer electrolytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration because it is the fastest and most effective way to rehydrate the body. IV fluids can quickly restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance in severe cases of dehydration. Providing oral fluids or encouraging fluid intake may not be sufficient for patients with moderate to severe dehydration, as they may have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. While electrolytes are essential for rehydration, administering them alone without fluid replacement may not address the primary issue of fluid loss in dehydration.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis and dysphagia requires care. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed flat.
• B. Have the client tuck their chin while swallowing.
• C. Provide the client with thickened liquids.
• D. Place the food on the unaffected side of the mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, especially those with multiple sclerosis, thin liquids can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids are recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration and help with swallowing difficulties. Positioning the client supine with the head of the bed flat can further increase the risk of aspiration. Having the client tuck their chin while swallowing is a strategy used for some types of dysphagia but not specifically for multiple sclerosis-related dysphagia. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth does not address the swallowing difficulties associated with dysphagia.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Stay in bed for at least 1 hour if unable to fall asleep.
• B. Take a 1-hour nap during the day.
• C. Perform exercise before bed.
• D. Eat a light snack before bedtime.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.

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