Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor sodium levels
• C. Monitor calcium levels
• D. Monitor glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a colostomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Stoma that is red and moist
• B. Purulent drainage from the stoma
• C. Stoma that is dry and purple
• D. Mild swelling around the stoma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A dry, purple stoma is abnormal and may indicate compromised blood flow, which should be reported to the provider. A red and moist stoma is a normal finding postoperatively. Purulent drainage from the stoma indicates infection and should also be reported. Mild swelling around the stoma is common in the early postoperative period and does not typically require immediate reporting.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Dry skin.
• C. Increased thirst.
• D. Increased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.

4. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Fever
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

5. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?

• A. Varicella vaccine.
• B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
• C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
• D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.

Similar Questions