Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

2. In which patient is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the likely cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

• A. A 30-year-old who has smoked for 3 years
• B. A 65-year-old man who worked as a taxi driver most of his life
• C. A 70-year-old woman who smoked for 40 years
• D. A 50-year-old with exposure to secondhand smoke

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that can lead to COPD at a young age, even in light smokers. Choice B is less likely as the patient's occupation does not directly correlate with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice C, a 70-year-old woman with a long smoking history, is more likely to have COPD due to smoking rather than alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Choice D, exposure to secondhand smoke, is not a common cause of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency-related COPD.

3. What is the treatment for patients with hemophilia A?

• A. Chemotherapy
• B. Factor VIII replacement
• C. Heparin administration
• D. Bone marrow transplant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct treatment for patients with hemophilia A is Factor VIII replacement. Hemophilia A is a genetic disorder where there is a deficiency in clotting factor VIII. Therefore, replacing this factor is crucial in managing and preventing bleeding episodes. Choice A, chemotherapy, is not the correct treatment for hemophilia A. Choice C, heparin administration, is not recommended as it can further increase the risk of bleeding in patients with hemophilia. Choice D, bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hemophilia A.

4. A patient is being educated on the administration of tinidazole (Tindamax). Which of the following indicates that the patient understands the administration of tinidazole?

• A. “I will report to the doctor if I have a slow heart rate.”
• B. “The medicine will leave a bitter or metallic taste in my mouth.”
• C. “I will report urinary urgency and incontinence.”
• D. “The medication is given in two doses every day.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tinidazole (Tindamax) is known to cause a bitter or metallic taste in the mouth. This side effect is common and indicates that the patient understands the medication they are taking. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically relate to the common side effects or administration details of tinidazole.

5. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

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