Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

• A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
• B. Neisseria meningitidis
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

2. What should the nurse discuss with a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease regarding the risks of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may decrease the risk of breast cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, especially in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT is not typically used to decrease the risk of osteoporosis. Choice C is incorrect as mood and energy level improvements are not the primary risks associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because HRT may actually increase the risk of breast cancer in some individuals.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
• C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
• D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

4. An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:

• A. Blood
• B. Kidneys
• C. Lungs
• D. Mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood. IgA1 is mainly found in the blood and plays a crucial role in preventing infections by neutralizing pathogens. While IgA1 can be present in other body areas, its primary function is associated with preventing infections in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as IgA1 is not primarily associated with the kidneys, lungs, or mucous membranes.

5. A patient is taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be stopped if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it is typically prescribed continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because patients should not stop the medication if side effects occur without consulting their healthcare provider.

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