ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
- A. Palliative
- B. Reconstructive
- C. Salvage
- D. Prophylactic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient whose diagnosis of multiple myeloma is being treated with bortezomib. The nurse should assess for what adverse effect of this treatment?
- A. Stomatitis
- B. Nephropathy
- C. Cognitive changes
- D. Peripheral neuropathy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral neuropathy. Bortezomib, used in the treatment of multiple myeloma, is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a significant adverse effect. Stomatitis (Choice A), which is inflammation of the mouth and lips, is not a common adverse effect of bortezomib. Nephropathy (Choice B), referring to kidney disease, is not a typical adverse effect of bortezomib. Cognitive changes (Choice C) are not a commonly reported adverse effect of bortezomib treatment.
3. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?
- A. Call 911.
- B. Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment.
- C. Facilitate a radiograph of the patient's neck and have the results forwarded to the patient's primary care provider.
- D. Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.
4. Which of the following statements by the oncology nurse displays understanding about antineoplastic medications?
- A. Chemotherapy is not going to spread throughout the body
- B. Chemotherapy affects the immune system
- C. Chemotherapy is specific to cancer cells only
- D. Chemotherapy makes the patient radioactive
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include both cancerous and healthy cells, such as those in the bone marrow, hair follicles, and the lining of the digestive tract. Since the bone marrow produces immune cells (white blood cells), chemotherapy can weaken the immune system by reducing the body’s ability to produce these cells, making patients more susceptible to infections. This is why close monitoring and supportive measures to protect immune function are important during chemotherapy treatment.
5. An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem?
- A. Hodgkin disease
- B. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
- C. Multiple myeloma
- D. Acute thrombocythemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is multiple myeloma (choice C). Back pain is a common presenting symptom in multiple myeloma, especially in older patients. This malignancy can lead to bone pain due to bone destruction and fractures. Hodgkin disease (choice A) and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (choice B) typically present with symptoms like painless lymph node enlargement, fever, and weight loss. Acute thrombocythemia (choice D) is characterized by an increase in platelet count but is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the patient.
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