ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
- A. Palliative
- B. Reconstructive
- C. Salvage
- D. Prophylactic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.
2. A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication?
- A. Iron-deficiency anemia
- B. Hemophilia
- C. Hematologic cancers
- D. Genitourinary cancers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hematologic cancers. Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at a high risk of developing second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common complication. Regular health assessments are crucial for early detection and management. Iron-deficiency anemia (A) is not a typical long-term complication of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment. Hemophilia (B) is a genetic bleeding disorder unrelated to Hodgkin lymphoma. Genitourinary cancers (D) are not the most common complication seen in survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma.
3. The nurse has educated a client on precautions to take with thrombocytopenia. What statement by the client indicates a need to review the information?
- A. I will be careful if I need enemas for constipation.
- B. I will use an electric shaver instead of a razor.
- C. I should only eat soft food that is either cool or warm.
- D. I won’t be able to play sports with my grandkids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because enemas can cause injury to a thrombocytopenic client due to the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are correct precautions for a client with thrombocytopenia. Using an electric shaver reduces the risk of cuts that could lead to bleeding. Eating soft, cool, or warm food helps prevent injuries to the oral mucosa. Avoiding activities like sports that carry a risk of injury is also advisable.
4. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
- A. Pruritis (itching)
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Altered glucose metabolism
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.
5. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?
- A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
- B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
- C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
- D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.
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