a client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation dic has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mgdl the nurse should take which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Oncology Test Bank

1. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.

2. Nurse Casey is preparing to administer chemotherapy to a client with leukemia. The nurse wears gloves and a gown to administer the medication and to prevent exposure to the agent by which of the following routes?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapeutic agents can be hazardous to healthcare workers if they are exposed to the drugs during preparation or administration. One of the primary risks is inhalation, where small particles or aerosols of the drug can become airborne and be inhaled, potentially causing harm to the nurse. Protective gear such as gloves and a gown, as well as masks or respirators in some cases, helps prevent this type of exposure.

3. Nurse Cecilia is caring for a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse avoids which of the following in the care of this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevating the knee gatch on the bed should be avoided in the care of a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy. This action can inhibit venous return, increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis or thrombophlebitis. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate nursing interventions for postoperative care to prevent complications and promote circulation.

4. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the patient's complaint?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response for a patient presenting with a firm, painless cervical lymph node and denying recent infectious diseases is to promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. This is crucial to rule out serious underlying conditions such as malignancy or other concerning causes. Calling 911 is not necessary in this situation as it is not an emergency. Ordering a radiograph may not be the most immediate or appropriate action, as further evaluation by a healthcare provider is needed first. Encouraging the patient to wait and track the lymph node for a week is not advisable when a potential serious condition needs to be ruled out promptly.

5. A patient with Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy. Which side effect is the nurse most concerned about?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Peripheral neuropathy. This can be a serious and dose-limiting side effect of chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma. Peripheral neuropathy can cause tingling, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet due to nerve damage. While nausea and vomiting, alopecia, and fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy, they are not typically as concerning or dose-limiting as peripheral neuropathy in the context of Hodgkin lymphoma treatment.

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