ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A client who is at risk for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) has a serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?
- A. Recheck the fibrinogen level in 4 hours
- B. Notify the health care provider
- C. Continue to monitor the client
- D. Administer cryoprecipitate as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum fibrinogen level of 110 mg/dL indicates a low level, which puts the client at risk for bleeding in DIC. The priority action for the nurse is to notify the health care provider. Rechecking the fibrinogen level may delay necessary interventions, administering cryoprecipitate should be done based on the provider's prescription, and while monitoring is important, immediate notification of the provider is crucial to address the low fibrinogen level promptly.
2. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.
3. The nurse knows that all of the following are risk factors for breast cancer except:
- A. Family history
- B. Nulliparity
- C. Chest xray
- D. Multiple sex partners
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Multiple sex partners are not a recognized risk factor for breast cancer. Breast cancer is primarily influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors, not sexual activity or the number of sexual partners. Established risk factors for breast cancer include family history, hormonal factors such as early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity (having no children), as well as certain environmental exposures.
4. A patient diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia has just been admitted to the oncology unit. When writing this patient's care plan, what potential complication should the nurse address?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Hemorrhage
- C. Arteritis
- D. Liver dysfunction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Patients with acute myelogenous leukemia are at high risk of hemorrhage due to low platelet count and abnormal clotting factors caused by bone marrow suppression. Pancreatitis (choice A) is not a common complication of acute myelogenous leukemia. Arteritis (choice C) refers to inflammation of arteries and is not a typical complication of this type of leukemia. Liver dysfunction (choice D) is not a primary concern in the immediate care plan for a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia.
5. An oncology patient has just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient’s plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?
- A. Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome.
- B. Assess the patient’s fine motor skills once per shift.
- C. Assess the patient’s wound for dehiscence every 4 hours.
- D. Maintain the patient’s head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After an open hemicolectomy (surgical removal of part of the colon), monitoring the surgical wound for signs of dehiscence (wound reopening) is a critical nursing priority. Dehiscence is a serious postoperative complication that can occur if the surgical site does not heal properly. Regular wound assessments every 4 hours allow the nurse to identify early signs of complications, such as redness, swelling, increased drainage, or separation of the wound edges. Early detection is key to preventing further complications, such as infection or evisceration (protrusion of abdominal organs through the wound).
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