Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. When caring for the client, the nurse should observe which of the following principles?

• A. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
• B. Do not allow pregnant women into the client’s room
• C. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the client’s room
• D. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be allowed to go in the room as long as they are 6 feet away from the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with internal radiation implants (also known as brachytherapy) emit a small amount of radiation, which can pose a risk to others. Pregnant women are particularly vulnerable to the harmful effects of radiation because it can affect both the mother and the developing fetus. Radiation exposure can lead to birth defects, miscarriage, or other developmental issues, so pregnant women should avoid any exposure by not entering the client's room.

2. A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?

• A. Lymphadenectomy
• B. Needle biopsy
• C. Open biopsy
• D. Sentinel node biopsy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sentinel lymph node biopsy is a minimally invasive alternative to more extensive lymph node dissection. This procedure involves identifying and removing the first lymph node(s) to which a tumor drains, known as the sentinel node(s), to determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of lymph nodes, needle biopsy involves sampling tissue with a needle for analysis, and open biopsy refers to the surgical removal of a sample of tissue for examination, none of which specifically serve as an alternative to lymph node dissection in this context.

3. A patient has a diagnosis of multiple myeloma and the nurse is preparing health education in preparation for discharge from the hospital. What action should the nurse promote?

• A. Daily performance of weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy
• B. Close monitoring of urine output and kidney function
• C. Daily administration of warfarin (Coumadin) as ordered
• D. Safe use of supplementary oxygen in the home setting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal function must be monitored closely in the patient with multiple myeloma.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

• A. Pruritis (itching)
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Altered glucose metabolism
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are among the most common and distressing side effects of chemotherapy. Chemotherapy drugs target rapidly dividing cells, including cancer cells, but they also affect healthy cells in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, triggering the release of chemicals that stimulate the brain’s vomiting center. These side effects can occur immediately (acute), be delayed, or even anticipatory, and often require management with antiemetic (anti-nausea) medications to improve the patient’s comfort and quality of life during treatment.

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