why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Multi Dimensional Care | Final Exam

1. Why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is characterized by porous, weak bones due to decreased bone density. This porous nature of bones in osteoporosis makes them more prone to fractures. Choice A is incorrect because bone spurs do not lead to fractures in osteoporosis; they are bony outgrowths unrelated to osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as osteoporosis is associated with decreased, not increased, bone density. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with osteoporosis are indeed prone to fractures due to weakened bones.

2. What test measures the oxygen level in the blood, often used to monitor patients with respiratory or cardiovascular conditions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive test that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood, commonly used to monitor respiratory and cardiovascular health. Arterial blood gas (ABG) measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, providing more detailed information than pulse oximetry. Echocardiogram is an ultrasound test used to visualize the heart's structure and function, while a chest X-ray is used to visualize the structures in the chest, such as the heart, lungs, and bones.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.

4. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.

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